Some "entertainers" have thrown in a twist and replaced "John" with "something else 3:16." It is poetic prose—prose with the soul of poetry—prose that, like poetry, packs layers of meaning in a word or phrase. [⇑ See verse text ⇑] The ultimate expression of God's love for mankind is grace. 3 To him the doorkeeper opens, and the sheep hear his voice; and he calls his own sheep by name and leads them out. Born Again Defined. John 1:16 grace upon grace NASB [or grace in place of grace NABRE]. Real faith is based on real Truth. New King James Version ... NKJV Word Study Bible: 1,700 Key Words that Unlock the Meaning of the Bible. And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace. John 1:16 Context. Whatever the original text in this particular verse, John clearly places Jesus right next to God as fully divine (John 1:1-3, etc.). It also means that the Insider Movement, which has changed the terms “Father” and “Son” because they are offensive to Muslims has perverted the core of the gospel. [⇑ See verse text ⇑] Verse 3 was John's first mention of fellowship, both between believers and with God. That would be wishful thinking - the power of positive thinking. No other verse in the Bible … The Gospel of John weds theology to poetry. Regarding the meaning of the text. I. Because from his fulness we all received. 'Grace upon Grace' — John 1:16-17. That Jesus would be speaking of 'the elect' is pre-empted by the very context in which he is speaking. What is the meaning of “grace upon grace” in John 1:16? Why is the glorification in John 17:1 circular? The former rendering tells us that more grace is given while the latter speaks about grace that is received in the New Covenant. 1 John 1:6 "If we say that we have fellowship with him, and walk in darkness, we lie, and do not the truth:" Walk in darkness means walking in sin. Key Thought. Read the Scripture: John 11:1-16 I want to talk this morning about the hardest problem to handle in the Christian life. This definition isn’t far off from what Jesus is telling us to do here in John 15. So, what is the big deal with John 3:16? . John was not intimating that there was no grace under the Law of Moses, for every sacrifice spoke of the beautiful final sacrifice, Who was to be lifted up on the cross. It does not take into account a wrong suffered, nor does it rejoice in unrighteousness. What "hour" (John 17:1) had come? 1 Now a man named Lazarus was sick. This shows the English words related to the source biblical texts along with brief definitions. full of grace and truth." Of his fulness - In John 1:14 the evangelist has said that Christ was "full of grace and truth." Remember that John's epistle is written to church members. Here it means the plenitude of divine attributes, the "glory . 16. of his fulness--of "grace and truth," resuming the thread of John 1:14. grace for grace--that is, grace upon grace (so all the best interpreters), in successive communications and larger measures, as each was able to take it … John 3:1-16 You Must be Born Again "Lord," I prayed, "give me an opportunity to share Christ with my friend." Please explain its meaning. Jesus is the Good Shepherd. Although he was born and educated in the U. S., his parents brought him to his mother's country every summer to visit her family. “If anyone does not abide in me he is thrown away like a branch and withers, and the branches are gathered, thrown into the fire, and burned” (John 15:6). What Does It Mean To Be Born Again? Indeed, John the Baptist was just quoted in the preceding passage, but most modern scholars feel that Jn 1:16-18 represents John the Gospel writer's comments. Pilate’s discussion with Jesus has been unproductive in his own eyes. How we should thank the Lord daily for His grace! Retail: $54.99. Either translation is good since the Greek allows it. Answer: We often see signs and banners at sporting events that say "John 3:16." It was the grace of God that allowed us to be saved, “For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God.”  (Ephesians 2:8)  It is the ‘abundant grace’ of God that sustains and strengthens us as we live for Him. Answer: “For from [Christ’s] fullness we have all received, grace upon grace” … SAME SUBJECT CONTINUED. Of His fullness - To what does this Jesus the True Shepherd. John 3:16 says, “For God so loved the world that He gave His one and only Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish but have eternal life.” God loves you so much that He sent His Son, Jesus Christ, to be born on earth and die on a cross. As to ὅτι (because), if it were the true reading, it would be necessary to make it relate either to the testimony of the apostles in John 1:14, or to that of the Baptist in John 1:15. “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” Rich blessings, grace, mercy, kindness, unfailing love and faithfulness, ... the list could go on and on forever. James White (This information sheet is divided into two sections – the first explores the meaning of John 1:1, and the second addresses the more technical subject of the correct translation of the verse. Regarding the meaning of the text. Discussion in 'Baptists' started by MagusAlbertus, Apr 7, 2006. Your answer might be different than mine. The “shepherd of the sheep” in this illustration is Jesus Christ (John 10:11) and any other person is a robber or thief (John 10:7-8). The meaning of this, while pretty simple, is incredibly powerful. (John 1:18) What does it mean that Jesus is the "Only God" or the "Only Begotten God"? Israel had returned to the sins of their forefathers and, God says, “refused to listen to my words.” The people were joined to their idols. In these lay many invalids—blind, lame, and paralysed. Surprisingly, John used the great Christian word "grace" three times in his prologue (John 1:14; John 1:16-17) but nowhere else in his Gospel. The we allof John 1:16, which implies the existence of the Church, in any case excludes the supposition that John the Baptist is still speaking in John 1:16. Save: $12.00 (30%) Buy Now. We have also (according to John 1:16) received ‘grace for grace’. That is not authentic faith. What Does 1 John 4:18 Mean? I am not saying that you should pray about that. He picks up on this theme again here in verse 6. Why does the Bible use the lion symbol for good and bad examples? 13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. John 5:1-16 The Word of God . On the one hand, there’s a strong emphasis in 1 John … EXEGESIS: JOHN 1:1-18. 19-24. What does 1 John 4:16 mean? "Of," or better, out of this fulness does each individual receive, and thus the ideal church becomes "his body, the fulness of him that filleth all things in … Either translation is good since the Greek allows it. Thread Status: Not open for further replies. John 1:1 – Meaning and Translation. The establishment of God's covenant with Israel is described in the Bible in Ex. 17 For the Law was given through Moses; grace and truth were realized through Jesus Christ. What does it mean that Jesus is the Lamb of God? The meaning of this, while pretty simple, is incredibly powerful. NKJV, Lucado Encouraging Word Bible, Comfort Print: Holy Bible, New King James Version. The gospel wants to remind us that this is the Passover, with all of its meaning and symbolism. John 1:16. A. The former rendering tells us that more grace is given while the latter speaks about grace that is received in the New Covenant. Now in Jerusalem by the Sheep Gate there is a pool, called in Hebrew Beth-zatha, which has five porticoes. 1 John 2:10-17. The word ‘fulness’ literally means to be full. ρώματος, καὶ χάριν ἀντὶ χάριτος, καὶ τρίτας ἀντι τῶν δευτέρων καὶ ἀεὶ νέας ἀντὶ παλαιοτέρων, is to be regarded as a continuation of those things which were begun, all that was to be received out of His fulness, and, ὌΝΕΙΔΟς ἭΚΕΙ ΤΌ Δʼ ἈΝΤʼ ὈΝΕΊΔΟῦς, ἙΤΈΡΑΝ ἈΝΘʼ ἙΤΈΡΑς ΦΡΟΝΤΊΔΑ ἘΝΘΕΊς, thou dost dismiss me, imposing one anxiety on another. 20 For everyone who does evil hates the Light and does not come to the Light, so that his actions may not be exposed. From [Jesus'] abundance we have all received one gracious blessing after another. It does not mean “grace on top of grace” or “one grace after another,” like Christmas presents piled … He was from Bethany, the village of Mary and her sister Martha. Does the Apostle John seem to make a distinction between God … It must be this way because this is our one and only opportunity for salvation, and sin was what cut us off from God in the first place, causing us to need salvation. Question: "What does John 3:16 mean?" John 3:18 states, “He who believes in Him is not judged; he who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.” This means that our witness to unbelievers must include sin, righteousness, and judgment, along with faith in the Lord Jesus Christ, as the only remedy for our helpless condition. Some "entertainers" have thrown in a twist and replaced "John" with "something else 3:16." (John 1:16, ESV) I am curious as to the meaning of "grace upon grace." I have read this as "grace for grace" in other bible translations. And (2) man’s understanding is finite, whereas God is infinite. 3 So the sisters sent word to Jesus, "Lord, the one you love is sick.". After this there was a festival of the Jews, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem. John was contrasting the dominant characteristics of these two ages. 14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. 17 For the Law was given through Moses; … Who was John the Baptist in the Bible? Let’s end this meditation by reading 1 Corinthians 1:4, “I thank my God always on your behalf, for the grace of God which is given you by Jesus Christ. Q5. 14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him . It means that we have received ‘abundant grace’ for all our needs in our Christian walk. What does this verse really mean? And He was ‘made flesh, and dwelt among us.’  The Word is the Lord Jesus Christ, the living Word of God. Then we will return to the gospel of John and discover the true meaning of John 1:17. God's blessings to us in Jesus are beyond our scope of imagining. This does not mean that you believe them into being. We read in 1 John 4:2, “Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God.”  To confirm the truth that the Lord Jesus is indeed God, let’s consider 1 Timothy 3:16, “And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: GOD WAS MANIFEST IN THE FLESH, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.”, It was John the Baptist that bore witness of the person of Christ. After this there was a festival of the Jews, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem. But only through Christ is the fullness of grace and truth fully realised. Grace in Torah. Key Thought. What does 1 John 1:6 mean? It is GOD’S UNMERITED FAVOR upon those who deserve the opposite. (202.2). 4 When he heard this, Jesus said, "This sickness will not end in death. Why is the order of Jesus’ calling His disciples different in some of the gospels? Love bears all things, believes all things, hopes all things, endures all things. The Greek phrasing could be translated as "grace upon grace," or "grace in place of grace." I guess I am what you would call a plant killer. He was with God and is God, Himself. I refer to those whose sin does not lead to death. I had been building a friendship with an expatriate from the U. S. His mother was an Ecuadorian and he had married a beautiful young Ecuadorian woman. 2 But he who enters by the door is the shepherd of the sheep. Pilate will release one person to the Jews for the Passover. Not the language of the Baptist (Heracleon, Origen, Rupertus, Erasmus, Luther, Melancthon, Lange), against which ἡμεῖς πάντες is decisive, but that of the evangelist continued. Concerning grace, an explanation was given at John 1:16: concerning truth, see below, John 1:18 [Comp. — John 1:16-17 NLT. What does John 1:16 mean? I have read already that some people say that Colossians 1:16 does not mean Jesus was the agent of creation, but of his own dominion. Wrongly so, John 3:16 is often written as graffiti on highway overpasses. It would be interesting to poll the congregation here as to what you think that would be. The exposition belongs to the Notes on these passages. Thank you for your insight in advance. This verse does not say, “In the beginning was Jesus.” “The Word” is not synonymous with Jesus, or even “the Messiah.” The word logos in John 1:1 refers to God’s creative self-expression—His reason, purposes and plans, especially as they are brought into action. Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers. John 3:1-16 You Must be Born Again "Lord," I prayed, "give me an opportunity to share Christ with my friend." This is another indication that John does not mean sinless perfection by the phrase walk in the light; otherwise, there would be no sin to cleanse in this ongoing sense. It is imperative that the serious student of the Bible come to a basic understanding of logos, which is translated as “Word” in John 1:1.Most Trinitarians believe that the word logos refers directly to Jesus Christ, so in most versions of John logos is capitalized and translated “Word” (some versions even write “Jesus Christ” in John 1:1). Notice the leading question Pilate asks: “Do you want me to release to you th… 13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God. In my judgment, 1 John 5:16 echoes Jeremiah 11, and similar texts in that book. MagusAlbertus custom user title. Friday, January 12, 2018. As another has described God’s grace: it is God’s Riches At Christ’s Expense. What Does It Mean To Be Born Again? It refers to … This does not mean that what was in the law was not true. Answer: We often see signs and banners at sporting events that say "John 3:16." We are complete in Him! John 1:16. John 1:16 Translation & Meaning. And of His fullness we have all received, and grace for grace. Pilate declares that the Jews have a custom for deliverance. [⇑ See verse text ⇑] John includes both himself and his readers as believers in the beginning of this verse. What does Jesus mean by "Glorify Your Son, that Your Son also may glorify You" (John 17:1)? Question: "What does John 3:16 mean?" Neither does this mean that it is easy to understand all that is to be known of God because; (1) sin has a limiting effect upon human understanding. If John actually means world by using the word world as he does, then the qualification Jesus makes carries a clear implication in regards to the extent of potentiality for belief. He was in the beginning. But before he gets to the meaning, he gives us a picture of what it looks like not to abide in him. That is exactly what the text says—but what does it mean? For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. Wrongly so, John 3:16 is often written as graffiti on highway overpasses. Therefore, he frames matters in absolute terms, offering no middle ground regarding sin and one's relationships with God and fellow man. Let’s read again John 1:16, “And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace.”  What is this fullness speaking of? In many modern churches, believing has been emphasized apart from knowing God. 10 “Most assuredly, I say to you, he who does not enter the sheepfold by the door, but climbs up some other way, the same is a thief and a robber. The Passover feast was a memorial for God’s deliverance. It means that we have received ‘abundant grace’ for all our needs in our Christian walk. Clearly, Jesus' words carry the imperative for belief. There is a sin that leads to death. GRACE for our every need; GRACE to walk in fellowship with Him; GRACE to overcome all obstacles that would hinder our faithful walk; GRACE to learn and live for Him; and when the time comes…GRACE to die! We also read of Christ in Colossians 2:9-10, “For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. John 16:13 What Does John 16:13 Mean? John 3:16 says, “For God so loved the world that He gave His one and only Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish but have eternal life.” God loves you so much that He sent His Son, Jesus […] But what about John 1:3, what does "through" mean there? Use this table to get a word-for-word translation of the original Greek Scripture. Our Price: $27.99. John 1:16-18. A. Question: "What is the meaning of ‘grace upon grace’ in John 1:16?" John 3:1-16. And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power.”  Amazing thought! What does it say about smoking pot in the bible? Let’s read ahead a little and consider John 1:29, “The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.”  John’s work was foretold in Malachi 3:1, “Behold, I will send my messenger, and he shall prepare the way before me…”. In 1 John 5:16-17, what is meant by the sin that leads to death? It tells the very purpose for which Jesus Christ has called some people to Himself to become Christians. 1. Born Again Defined. i. Law expresses God"s standards, but grace provides help so we can do His will. We need to make sure that we see these two verses as part of the larger balancing act that John is doing in this letter. He finished it, put the capstone on it, and revealed it to us. What does John 1:1,14 mean when it says that Jesus is the Word of God? "But when He, the Spirit of truth, comes, He will guide you into all the truth; for He will not speak on His own initiative, but whatever He hears, He will speak; and He will disclose to you what is to come. 15 John * testified about Him and cried out, saying, “This was He of whom I said, ‘ He who comes after me has a higher rank than I, for He existed before me.’” 16 For of His fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace. John adds, “Out of his fullness we have all received grace in place of grace already given” (1:16). Now in Jerusalem by the Sheep Gate there is a pool, called in Hebrew Beth-zatha, which has five porticoes. John 1:17(ESV) Verse Thoughts. John 3:1-16. Bible Answer: John 10:1-6 is a parable about the Good Shepherd. 1,019 +22 Baptist Married. 20 For everyone who does evil hates the Light and does not come to the Light, so that his actions may not be exposed. Does this refer to Christ as Grace, who loves us so much He gives grace to us? John 10:1-16. Why? THE PROLOGUE TO THE GOSPEL OF JOHN. So whatever does not agree with the truth is false or unprofitable. John 15:16 matters a lot in our Christian life. JOHN 3:19-21 19 “And this is the condemnation, that the Light has come into the world, and men loved darkness rather than the Light because their actions were evil. In John 5:23 Jesus states, “He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him.” This means that the cults, which all deny the deity of Jesus, cannot bring anyone to God. John 1:16 For of His fullness we have all received, and grace upon grace. Who has the authority over all human beings? 2 But he who enters by the door is the shepherd of the sheep. what does 1 John 5:16-17 mean?! Verse 14 tells us that the Lord was ‘full of grace and truth.’  WE (as believers on the Lord Jesus Christ) receive supply for all our needs out of the ‘fullness’ of Christ. Meaning of John 10:1-6 — The Interpretation. 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